Question about CPS, role of gov’t in intervening in abuse, and what constitutes abuse/violence
I feel like this may be a bit of a contentious one and I apologize, but I’m fairly new at learning about Libertarianism and am trying to understand some of the nuances.
I usually kind of scoff at the idea of words being violence because that seems like it’s a step from impeding free speech. But then I had it proposed to me in the context of verbal/psychological abuse from parents to children. While this is not physical abuse, and you can argue if it’s abuse or not, I know from experience it can sure take it’s toll.
A loving family that spanks there kid on occasion may be seen as physically abusive by some, but a cruel parent who makes the home a constantly hostile environment without ever laying a hand may not be. Someone else may see the abuse flipped in those scenarios though.
I’m trying to understand what the Libertarian stance is on things like CPS and is it ever okay for the gov’t to step in, and if so is that limited to physical cases?
Love to hear your thoughts. Thanks.
submitted by /u/thestonkinator
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