how is surplus value stolen if both sides consent to a set wage
and if u want to mandate the surplus value goes to the worker, isnt THAT stepping on the consent of one side
the way i see it, its like some hot alpha male/female invites u over to produce an hour of sex but ten minutes u have to be blindfolded. the ten minutes representing surplus value
so even if u consent to this deal cuz the 50 minutes itself sounds good would it still be rape or ten minutes be stolen from u? that doesnt make any sense
finally, if the workers somehow by force are supposed to get all the value, does this mean they bear all the losses? like if they produce something for an originally contracted wage of 15, but then it only sells for 10, can the boss go back and take the 5 from him, subverting the original contract?
Article from r/Libertarian: For a Free Society