Explanation about a Hayek
Hi everyone! I am reading the Road to Serfdom and I came across a phrase that seems illogical, so I was wondering if any of you would be so kind as to enlighten me.
The phrase is “It may be the unanimously expressed will of the people that its parliament should prepare a comprehensive economic plan, yet neither the people nor its representatives need therefore be able to agree on any particular plan.”
“Yet” introduces a contrast but “therefore” implies that the second part of the phrase is derived from the first one. I get the overall meaning of the passage but the phrasing seems off and unclear if read without context.
Would it be correct to rewrite the phrase as “… nor its representatives are necessarily able to…”?
I’m portuguese so english is my second language and I might be missing something.
Article from r/Libertarian: For a Free Society